3000+ venice of 3500+ venice?

Archangel

Archangel

VIP Member
well, the question might have been answered somewhere already, but, whats the difference between these 2 prosessord except the higher clock frequentie?
i mean, considering the price difference, there must be one..
or is the 3500+ just an overclocked version of the 3000+ ?
 
well, the question might have been answered somewhere already, but, whats the difference between these 2 prosessord except the higher clock frequentie?
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what more difference do you need from 2 processors in the same family/class ?
 
i was wondeirng the same thing, what would be better to get. Everyone said the 3000+ since its exactly the same as the other, just higher frequency.
 
The 3000 will place a greater strain on your memory and front side bus than the 3500 will. You can only lower the multipliers on either but you can't raise them. Most if not all of the over clocks that have exceeded 2.6 GHZ using standard cooling have been achieved using the 3500+.
 
i mean, considering the price difference, there must be one..
or is the 3500+ just an overclocked version of the 3000+ ?
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1. Its prolly more accurate to say the 3000 is an underclocked 3500
2. You cant OC the 3000 in the same way AMD did. :)
 
And remember that AMD just set it at a higher speed (it's not exactly the same as overclocking) an then get it into a series of stressful tests to validate its warranty. The processors that fails to work flawlessly at 3500, are set to a lower speed, so 3500s are tough processors.
To me it's a big difference...
 
Ahmmww

I am not entirely sure about that. Sometimes manufacturers downgrade their chips as to cater for all segments of the market. Remember that the manufacturing costs for the A64s for example are very close to same. However, the pricing strategies have to reflect the demands of the market. Hence you see downgraded versions of the processors.

JAN :D
 
It's not an inaccurate statement though. They aren't fabbed as 3500+ or 3000+, they are labelled based on the need and stable operating @ stock conditions.
 
And remember that AMD just set it at a higher speed
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The processors that fails to work flawlessly at 3500, are set to a lower speed,
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A technical contradiction?

that the manufacturing costs for the A64s for example are very close to same
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Not quite. While to produce a generic chip costs the same .. you may only get one chip for every ten that can run at 2.6Ghz rather than 2.4Ghz -- but you had to make 11 chips in order to find that out ... so indirectly, it costs more to make a higher clocked chip
 
Not quite. While to produce a generic chip costs the same .. you may only get one chip for every ten that can run at 2.6Ghz rather than 2.4Ghz -- but you had to make 11 chips in order to find that out ... so indirectly, it costs more to make a higher clocked chip
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we'll that all depends on whether you can sell all the chips clocked at 2.4, if you cant then the write down expense will increase cost per chip. If you can then the per unit cost for all chips is the same.
But you'll have to sell the 2.4 chips for less cutting into your margin.
 
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